Krisradhey_final_11122010.p65

Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition MANAN SHROFF
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition This reference guide is not intended as a substitute for the advice of a physician. Students or readers mustconsult their physicians about any existing problem. Do not use any information in this reference guide forany kind of self treatment. Do not administer any dose of mentioned drugs in this reference guide withoutconsulting your physician. This is only a review guide for preparation for the pharmacy technician boardexam.
The author of this reference guide is not responsible for any kind of misinterpreted, incorrect or misleadinginformation or any typographical errors in this guide. Any doubtful or questionable answers should bechecked in other available reference sources.
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This reference guide is in no way authorized by or sponsored by the Pharmacy Technician CertificationBoards, Inc.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Today, the pharmacy is considered a very fast growing field. The jobs done by pharmacistsyesterday have completely changed today. Today’s pharmacist is not merely a machine to dispensedrugs, he or she can counsel the patients, keep an eye on important interactions, and practice moretowards the clinical side of the field of pharmacy.
However, this requires a great amount of time and patience. By considering all of these factors, in1995 PTCB was introduced. By certifying pharmacy technicians, pharmacists can spend moretime on patient counseling and other patient oriented jobs.
To prepare a pharmacy technician to take over some of the responsibilities of pharmacists, such asdiscovering duplicated therapy, wrong doses and directions, and the knowledge of drug indicationsand interactions, the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam was introduced in 1995.
This exam will test pharmacy technicians on three major areas:1. Assisting the pharmacist in serving patients.
2. Maintaining medications and inventory control systems.
3. Participating in administration and management of the pharmacy practice.
This reference guide has more than 500 questions that allow you to practice tackling theactual exam.
We have also included more than 40 chapters that will give you knowledge of drug trade names,generic names, indications and major adverse reactions.
The PTCB exam puts more emphasis on calculations; therefore, all efforts were made to includecalculations in the tutorial.
The practice test at the end of the reference guide will ensure that you understand the materialprovided for you in this reference guide. All suggestions from you are always welcome.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition TABLE OF CONTENTS
SECTION -I
COLONY and ERYTHROCYTE STIMULATING FACTORS Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition SECTION-II
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition SECTION -I
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 1-INOTROPIC AGENTS
Adverse Effects
Therapeutic uses of inotropic agents:
Terminology:
Anorexia: Appetite loss.
Thrombocytopenia: A low platelets count in blood.
Ventricular arrhythmia: Irregular movements of left ventricles of the heart.
2-ANTIARRHYTHMIC AGENTS
M/A: This class of agents is indicated for the treatment of an irregular heart rhythm.
Adverse Effects
dry eyes, blurred vision, negative inotropic effect Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Therapeutic uses of antiarrhythmic agents:
Terminology:
Pulmonary toxicity: Lung toxicity.
Gingival hyperplasia: Gum inflammation and bleeding.
Ataxia: Lack of coordination of muscle movements.
Nystagmus: Rapid involuntary movement of eyes that may be from side to side, up and down, or
rotatory.
S.L.E.: Systemic lupus erythematosus (chronic inflammatory disease of connective tissues).
Blood dyscrasia: Abnormality in blood.
A.V. node suppression: Slowing down in conduction velocity of heart.
Negative inotropic effects: Reducing the force of muscle contraction of heart.
3-BETA-BLOCKERS
M/A: They block Beta-1 receptors in cardiac tissues. They reduce the oxygen requirement of the heart by
decreasing the heart rate and force of contraction of the heart associated with an exercise.
Adverse Effects
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Therapeutic uses of beta-blockers:
Do not use beta-blockers for:
1. CHF patients: May cause fatal heart failure.
2. Diabetic patients: May mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
3. Asthma patients: May constrict the bronchial smooth muscles by blocking beta-2 receptors.
Terminology:
Bradycardia: Slowing down of heart rate.
Hypoglycemia: Low blood glucose level.
Bronchial muscles: Smooth muscles of lungs.
Angina: Heart disorder with sharp pain in heart.
4-CENTRALLY ACTING ANTIHYPERTENSIVE AGENTS
M/A: Agents of this class generally inhibit the secretion of nor-adrenaline from the brain, which is
responsible for causing hypertension.
Adverse Effects
Therapeutic uses:
Terminology:
Hemolytic anemia: In hemolytic anemia, due to a premature destruction of RBCs, there are not enough
red blood cells in blood.
Hypertension: Elevation of arterial blood pressure above the normal range.
Hypotension: Condition in which arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 5-CA-CHANNEL BLOCKERS
M/A: They produce the dilation of coronary arteries, and thereby increase the blood flow to the heart.
Adverse Effects
Therapeutic uses:
Terminology:
Hypertension: Elevation of arterial blood pressure above the normal range.
Hypotension: Condition in which arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 6-ACE INHIBITORS
M/A: They inhibit the enzymatic conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are known as angio-
tensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Adverse Effects
hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia ANGIOTENSIN II RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS
M/A: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists, also known as angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), are medi-
cations that block the action of angiotensin II by preventing angiotensin II from binding to angiotensin II
receptors on blood vessels.
Adverse Effects
The advantage of ACE II receptor antagonists over ACE inhibitors is that they do not produce dry cough.
Therapeutic uses:
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Terminology:
Dysgeusia: Loss of taste.
Hyperkalemia: An elevated concentration of potassium in blood.
7-VASODILATORS
M/A: As the name suggests, this class of agents generally causes dilation of blood vessels.
Adverse Effects
Therapeutic uses:
Terminology:
Tachycardia: It typically refers to a heart rate that exceeds the normal range for a resting heartrate (heartrate
in an inactive or sleeping individual).
Edema: An excessive accumulation of fluid in body tissues.
Hypertrichosis: An excessive hair growth on the body.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): It is a chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disorder. It may affect
the skin, joints, kidneys and other organs.
Peripheral neuritis: It is a problem with the nerves that carry information to and from the brain and spinal
cord. This can produce pain, loss of sensation and an inability to control muscles.
8-ANTIPLATELET AGENTS
M/A: They generally inhibit the aggregation of platelets and make blood thinner in order to reduce heart
strokes.
Adverse Effects
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Adverse Effects
Therapeutic uses:
Terminology:
Agranulocytosis: A disorder in which there is an acute deficiency of granulocytes in blood.
9-CORONARY VASODILATORS
M/A: Agents of this class generally dilate the blood vessels of the heart, thereby help controlling hyper-
tension and preventing an angina.
Adverse Effects
lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches Therapeutic uses:
Terminology:
Lightheadedness: Dizziness (lightheadedness) is often caused by a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
Hypotension: Condition in which an arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 26-ASTHMA
Definition: Bronchial asthma is a chronic disorder characterized by an increased responsiveness of trachea
and bronchi to a various stimuli, and narrowing of airways. It is associated with shortness of breath, chest
tightness, wheezing and coughing.
A. Beta-2 agonists:
B. Acetylcholine antagonists:
C. Bronchodilators combination:
D Drugs that prevent mast cell degranulation:
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition E. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroidal agents:
F. Leukotriene receptor antagonists:
G. An inhibition of the enzyme that is required for a production of Leukotrienes:
H Xanthine derivatives:
Only short-acting beta-2 receptor agonists, such as Albuterol, Metaproterenol, Bitolterol and Pirbuterol, are indicated for the treatment of an acute attack of asthma. Salmeterol, Formoterol andArformoterol are long-acting beta-2 agonists useful only for the maintenance treatment of asthma.
Agents other than short-acting beta-2 agonists are indicated for prophylaxis treatment of asthma.
Adverse Effects:
Headaches, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 27- B.P.H.
Definition: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is defined as an enlargement of the prostate gland, which
is often associated with urinary symptoms, and a decrease in urine flow.
A 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors:
B Alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonists:
C Alpha-1-A adrenoceptors antagonists in the prostate:
Proscar (Finasteride) and Avodart (Dutasteride) are contraindicated to use in women who are preg- nant or planning to become a pregnant. Because of the ability of Type II 5-alfa-reductase inhibitors toinhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), Finasteride and Dutasteride may causeabnormalities of the external genitalia of a male fetus of a pregnant woman who receives these drugs. Ifthese drugs are used during pregnancy, or if pregnancy occurs while taking these drugs, the pregnantwoman should be apprised of the potential hazard to the male fetus. Therefore, Proscar and Avodart shouldnot be handled by pregnant women.
Women (pharmacy technicians) should not handle crushed or broken Proscar tablets when they are pregnant or may potentially be pregnant because of the possibility of absorption of Finasteride and thesubsequent potential risk to a male fetus. Similarly, Avodart capsules should not be handled by a womanwho is pregnant or who may become pregnant. Dutasteride is absorbed through the skin and could result inunintended fetal exposure. If a woman who is pregnant or who may become pregnant comes in contactwith leaking Dutasteride capsules, the contact area should be washed immediately with soap and water.
Both Proscar (Finasteride) and Avodart (Dutasteride) are classified under pregnancy category X.
The major side effects of alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonists are syncope (sudden loss of conscious- Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 28-COLONY and ERYTHROCYTES STIMULATING FACTORS
Treatment of anemia associated with a chronic renal failure,Zidovudine-induced anemia and anemia in patients due toa cancer chemotherapy Terminology:
Neutropenia: A decrease in neutrophils counts.
Edema: It is swelling that is caused by fluid trapped in the body’s tissues. An edema happens most often in
the feet, ankles and legs.
Thrombocytopenia: A decrease in thrombocytes counts.
29-HEMATINIC AGENTS
Therapeutic uses:
Adverse Effects:
Megaloblastic anemia (only folic acid and vitamin B12) Terminology:
Anemia: Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough healthy red blood cells. The iron
deficiency is responsible for anemia.
Megaloblastic anemia: Megaloblastic anemia is a blood disorder in which there is anemia with larger than
normal red blood cells. The deficiency of Folic acid and vitamin B12 may be responsible for this type of
anemia.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 30-HYPERURICEMIA and GOUT
Definition: Gout is a metabolic disease in which an overproduction or an under excretion of uric acid leads
to a deposition of urate crystals in synovial joints. This will lead to intermittent attacks of arthritis.
Adverse Effects
Terminology:
Hemolytic anemia: It is a condition in which there are not enough red blood cells in the blood, due to the
premature destruction of red blood cells.
Hepatic necrosis: A severe and rapidly progressive form of hepatitis accompanied by hepatocellular death,
and the signs and symptoms of hepatic failure.
Blood dyscrasia: A general term that is used to describe any abnormality in the blood or bone marrow’s
cellular components, such as low white blood cells count, low red blood cells count or low platelets count.
Anaphylaxis: It is a life-threatening type of an allergic reaction.
Hepatitis: It is an inflammation of the liver.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 31 - IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS
Definition: They are indicated for the treatment of liver, kidney and heart transplantation.
Therapeutic uses:
Severe chronic plaque psoriasis (Amevive) Kidney, liver and heart transplantation (Sandimmune, Neoral, Gengraf, CellCept, Prograf) Kidney transplantation (Rapamune, Zortress, Myfortic, Imuran, Afinitor, Simulect, Zenapax) Adverse Effects:
Kidney and liver toxicities, bone marrow suppression, nausea and vomiting Terminology:
Bone marrow suppression: Suppression of bone marrow activity, resulting in reduction in the number of
platelets, red blood cells and white blood cells.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition What is a generic name and use of the following drugs?
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition What is a generic name and use of the following drugs?
What do the following abbreviations mean?
Fill in the corresponding quantities.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition should notify a pharmacist about therapeutic du-plication.
trolled drug. It is indicated for the treatment of Aspirin is a blood thinning agent indicated attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
for the prevention of heart strokes. It should be It cannot be refilled under any circumstances. A carefully prescribed with other blood thinning list of other Schedule II controlled drugs is as fol- agents because of a risk of a severe bleeding.
farin), Heparin, Plavix (Clopidogrel), Ticlid (Ticlopidine), Depakene (Valproic acid),Persantine (Dipyridamole), Mandol (Cefamandole), Cefotan (Cefotetan), Cefobid (Cefoperazone) and Moxam (Moxalactam) may increase the bleeding tendency in patients and should be carefully prescribed with other blood by administering vitamin K1 (Mephyton).
1050cc. In this type of calculation we first calculate a number of cc required for a 1-day.
Compazine (Prochlorperazine) is indicated for the treatment of nausea and vomiting. It is clas- 1050cc. In this type of calculation we first need sified as an anti-emetic (an agent that prevents to find out the number of cc required for 1 day.
The cost for 100 tablets of Olanzapine is $420; therefore, the cost for a single tablet of Olanzapine should be $420/100 = $4.20.
The % mark-up on a prescription is 15.
15x4.20/100 = $0.63, therefore a dispensing costof each tablet of Olanzapine should be $4.20 + The cost for dispensing 30 tablets should be $4.83x 30 = $145.
[20cc (am) + 15cc (pm)] x 30 = 1050cc.
33 grams. For calculations of this type, an allegation method is very useful. We should fonylurea agents indicated for the treatment of mix 3% Salicylic acid powder with a talc powder Type II diabetes mellitus. A pharmacy technician Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition (0 % Salicylic acid) in such a way that the final 12 (b) A prescription for Schedule II controlled
mixture would give us 500 grams of 0.2% Sali- drugs should be dispensed with an exact dispens- ing quantity mentioned on the prescription by aprescribing physician. MS-Contin is a ScheduleII controlled drug. The correct dispensing quan-tity should be 60.
13 (b) A prescription for Schedule III and IV
controlled drugs cannot be refilled more than 5
times within a period of six months from the date
the prescription was issued. A patient must bring
a new prescription since all the allowable refills
Total parts of 0.2% acid
Parts of 3 % acid
14 (c) Otocort otic solution is intended for ear
use only. It should not be applied to eyes. An aux-
500x0.2/3 = 33 grams of 3% salicylic acid.
iliary label, “for ear use only”, should be placedon the dispensing container.
cylic acid) with 467 grams talc powder (500 grams 15 (c) Tamsulosin is a generic name for Flomax.
- 33 grams = 467 grams), we will get 500 grams It is indicated for the treatment of Benign pros- tatic hyperplasia (BPH). All other choices arecolony stimulating agents. They generally help 10 (b) Plavix (Clopidogrel) is a blood thinning
stimulating the production of erythrocytes and agent. Agents of this class generally act by inhib- granulocytes in patients receiving chemotherapeu- iting aggregation of platelets, which is thought to be the primary mechanism of blood clotting. It isindicated for prevention of heart strokes in patients 16 (d) 150 cc. Lanoxin is available as 0.05mg/
with congestive heart failure (CHF).
ml. A patient is taking 0.25 mg per day. There-fore: 11 (b) Asthma is characterized by increased re-
sponsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to vari-
ous stimuli and narrowing of airways. It is associ- ated with shortness of breath, chest tightness, wheezing and coughing. The stimulation of beta-2 receptors dilates the bronchial smooth muscles and helps controlling symptoms associated with Beta-2 receptors blockers may constrict the 17 (c) Diflucan and Biaxin suspensions should
smooth muscles of bronchi and even aggravate be stored at room temperature once they are re- constituted with water. All other suspensions (ex- Metoprolol is a beta receptor blocker in- cept Biaxin and Diflucan) are required to be stored dicated for the treatment of hypertension. It should in a refrigerator once they are reconstituted with be carefully prescribed to patients suffering from asthma. The other choices, such as Accolate andAtrovent, are indicated for the treatment of asthma.
18 (b) Hytrin.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 19 (a) An anti-psychotic.
27 (a) A one grain is equal to 65 milligrams;
therefore, a half grain of Phenobarbital is equal to
20 (c) Mevacor (Lovastatin) is indicated for the
treatment of elevated lipid levels. It is not indi-cated for the treatment of epilepsy.
28 (b) Miacalcin (Calcitonin Salmon) is indicated
for the treatment of osteoporosis. It is generally
21 (b) All drugs mentioned in a question are in-
administered via nasal route. It should be stored dicated for the treatment of hypertension; there- in a refrigerator. A list of drugs that are adminis- fore, the patient is most likely suffering from hy- 22 (b) Aspirin is classified as an NSAID (Non
Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug). If a patient were allergic to aspirin, he might have an allergic reaction to drugs that fall into the same class.
Naproxen is also classified as an NSAID and there- fore the correct choice should be “b.” 23 (d) A patient with a “sulfa” allergy should
avoid thiazide diuretics (HCTZ), oral sulfonylurea agents (Glyburide) and sulfa drugs (Sulfadiazine) since these classes of drugs have a sulfa group intheir chemical structures.
29 (b) A regular Insulin, Novolin R has the fast-
est onset of action among the given choices. A new trolled drug indicated for the treatment of ADHD.
Insulin Lispro has an even faster onset of action It is not structurally related to sulfa drugs.
24 (b) An inventory of Schedule II controlled
30 (b) The application of an alligation method
drugs should be strictly followed. Amphetamine is required to solve this kind of a problem.
is a Schedule II controlled drug and therefore thecorrect choice should be “b.” 25 (b) Fosamax is indicated for the treatment of
osteoporosis and Paget’s disease of the bone. It
should be taken with a full glass of plain water
only.
mineral water, coffee, tea or orange juice. Aftertaking Fosamax, the patient should not lie downfor 30 minutes in order to avoid irritation of the First, we need to subtract 70 from 100, which will esophagus; the patient should wait at least 30 min- give us 30 parts (0% alcohol or water), and 0 from utes before eating his/her first food, beverages or 70, which will give us 70 parts (100% alcohol).
70 parts (100% alcohol) and 30 parts (0% alcohol 26 (b) The partial supply of Schedule II con-
or water). If we mix in this proportion then we trolled drugs should be filled within 72 hours from will get 70% alcohol. Since we want to prepare Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 70% alcohol
100% alcohol
36 (b) A patient is taking 200mg of Phenytoin in
the morning and 500mg at bedtime. Phenytoin suspension is available as 125mg/5cc; therefore,to dispense 200mg of Phenytoin: 200mg x 5cc/ Similarly to dispense 500mg of Phenytoin: We can also find the amount of water required by 500mg x 5cc/125mg = 20cc are required.
simply subtracting 700cc from the total of 1000cc Therefore, the total daily dose in cc should be 28cc.
37 (b) First, we need to calculate the amount of
potassium permanganate present in a 0.125%,
Thus, if we mix 700cc, 100% alcohol with 300cc of plain water, we will get 1000cc, 70% alcohol.
31 (b) Nifedipine extended release tablet.
32 (c) 3 drops in each ear three times a day for 7
days.
33 (c) Aerobid (Flunisolide) is a steroidal agent
Similarly, the amount of potassium permangan- indicated for the treatment of asthma. All other ate present in a a 2.5%, 500cc KMNO solution? choices are beta-2 receptor stimulatingbronchodilators.
34 (c) 18.46%
35 (c) 32cc. Permapen is available as a prefilled
syringe (1.2MU/2cc). A prescription requires Therefore, one can say that 12812 milligrams of KMNO are present in 750cc of solution.
Therefore, the concentration of KMNO in the = 12,812mg/750cc= 17.08mg per ml of a solution.
A patient is using it twice a week and therefore aone week supply should be = 4cc x 2 = 8cc.
38 (a) Novolin N solution is available as 10 units/
A 30-day (4 weeks) supply would be 8cc x 4 = cc, 10cc. Therefore, the total units of the drug in 10cc should be 100 units. A patient is using a totalof 50 units of the drug per day; therefore, a vial of Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Novolin N is only going to last for 2 days. The schizophrenia. The other choices, such as Zoloft correct choice should be “time to refill.” (Sertraline), Sinequan (Doxepin) and Desyrel(Trazodone), are indicated for the treatment of de- 39 (b) Valproic acid.
40 (a) Daily.
47 (c) The generic name for Provera is Medroxy
progesterone; therefore, it can be found under “M”
41 (b) A patient with hypersensitivity to penicil-
lin may develop an allergic reaction to the cepha-losporin group of antibiotics. Cephalexin belongs 48 (c) Wycillin (Penicillin G Procaine) is a de-
to the cephalosporin group of antibiotics; there- rivative of penicillin. It should be avoided by pa- fore, the correct choice should be “b”.
tients hypersensitive to the penicillin group ofantibiotics.
42 (b) The quantity of folic acid should be lim-
ited to 0.4mg in over-the-counter folic acid prod-
49 (b) Zantac (Ranitidine) belongs to the same
ucts. The use of folic acid is severely contraindi- class as Tagamet (Cimetidine) does. Agents of this cated in a patient suffering from pernicious ane- class are generally known as Histamine H recep- mia. It is the principal reason to limit its quantity They are indicated for the treatment of G.I.
ulcers associated with hypersecretion of hydro- 43 (b) The generic name for Tygacil is
chloric acid. Other agents from this class are Tigecycline. It is a tetracycline derivative (a Pepcid (Famotidine) and Axid (Nizatidine).
glycylcycline) for intravenous infusion. EachTygacil vial contains 50 mg of Tigecycline lyo- 50 (c) Please remember that a 15% acetic acid
philized powder for an intravenous infusion.
can be interpreted as 15 grams of acetic acidpresent in 100 grams of a final mixture. Similarly, 44 (c) Claritin (Loratadine), Clarinex
a 10%, 100 grams of acetic acid can be interpreted (Desloratadine) and Zyrtec (Cetirizine) are non- as 10 grams of acetic acid present in 100 grams of sedative antihistamines. They produce less or no sedation compared to traditionally available anti-histamines.
15gm acetic acid present in 100gm of a mixture They are more preferable over other anti- histamines to use in a daytime to avoid drowsi-ness and dizziness. Brompheniramine, Chlorpheniramine and Diphenhydramine are clas- = 66.67 grams of 15% acetic acid will be required.
sified as sedative antihistamines since they pro-duce significant amount of sedation and drowsi- 51 (a) 30 milligrams.
45(b) Nasal decongestants such as pseudoephe-
drine and phenylpropanolamine have a tendencyto extravagate hypertension. Therefore, a phar- 0.05x60/100 = 0.03 grams = 30 milligrams.
macy technician should recommend the patient toseek counseling from a pharmacist before buying 52 (c) Amphetamine has a CNS stimulation prop-
erty. It is indicated for the treatment of ADHD(Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder). The 46 (c) Risperdal (Risperidone) is classified as an
other choices, such as Valium (Diazepam), Xanax antipsychotic drug indicated for the treatment of Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition (Alprazolam) and Ambien (Zolpidem), are ben- 57(b) Erythromycin is a member of the mac-
zodiazepines indicated for the treatment of insom- rolide group of antibiotics and therefore the cor- 53 (a) 0.325 mg. 1 grain = 65 milligrams, there-
58 (b) In Tylenol no. 3, three (3) generally indi-
cates the amount of Codeine in milligrams. Tylenol 1/200 grains = 1/200 x 65 mg = 0.325 mg.
no.3 contains 30 milligrams of Codeine.
54 (b) 2%. The amount of Hydrocortisone (HC)
59 (b) Ilotycin is a brand name for Erythromycin
60 (b) Darvocet (Propoxyphene + Acetami-
nophen) is classified as an opioid analgesic. Apatient with hypersensitivity to an opioid should 2.5x60/100 = 1.5 grams Hydrocortisone.
The amount of Hydrocortisone in 30 grams of 1% 61 (c) Lescol (Fluvastatin) is indicated for the
treatment of atherosclerosis. It is classified as alipid lowering drug. It is classified under HMG- COA inhibitors. The other drugs in the same class are Pravachol (Pravastatin), Mevacor (Lovastatin),Zocor (Simvastatin), Lipitor (Atorvastatin) and 30x1/100 = 0.3 grams Hydrocortisone.
Total amount of Hydrocortisone in 90 grams (60 62 (c) Disulfiram-like reactions resemble reac-
gm + 30 gm) of cream will be 1.8 grams (1.5 gm tions in a patient who is on an alcohol withdrawal therapy with Antabuse (Disulfiram). When Dis-ulfiram is taken with alcohol by a patient, he/she The amount of Hydrocortisone in % w/w in a fi- suffers from reactions that are usually character- ized by severe throbbing headaches, nausea andvomiting. These unpleasant side reactions discour- There are several other drugs that may pro- duce the same reactions when used with alcohol; = 1.8x100/90 = 2% w/w Hydrocortisone.
therefore, their interactions with alcohol are knownas disulfiram-like reactions. A list of drugs that 55 (c) Xalatan (Latanoprost) is indicated for the
produces disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol is treatment of glaucoma. It should be found under the eye section of a pharmacy. It should be storedin a refrigerator.
56 (b) Acetaminophen no. 3 is a combination
product of Acetaminophen and Codeine. The pa- tient is allergic to Codeine and therefore the cor- Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Most oral sulfonylurea agents also cause disul- Talwin NX is very little and does not produce any firam-like reactions when taken with alcohol. Al- withdrawal symptoms when used orally; however, cohol should be strictly avoided with all the above when used parenterally, it produces profound nar- 63 (c) An elixir, by definition, contains 5 to 40
67 (b) The validity of a DEA number written by
percent alcohol. When dispensing any drug in an elixir form, one must keep in mind that a patientshould NOT be on any disulfiram-like reactions- 1. The DEA number consists of 9 letters. The first letter is generally designated by “A” or “B.” Itmeans dispensing.
64 (b) Ultram (Tramadol) is a centrally-acting an-
algesic indicated for the treatment of moderate to
2. The second letter is generally designated by the severe pain. It is not structurally related to opioid last name of the prescribing physician.
agents. The risk of seizure increased when Ultramis taken with alcohol or MAO inhibitors.
3. The rest consists of seven numbers.
65 (b) The wholesale price for 100 tablets of
4. First do a sum of the 1st, 3rd and 5th numbers Cipro is $350; therefore, the price for one tablet followed by a separate sum of the 2nd, 4th and 6th numbers. Multiply the second sum by a factorof 2. Now add this resultant sum to the first sum.
The last number of the resultant sum should matchthe last number of the DEA number.
The percentage mark-up on the prescription is 15.
5. In the above question, the prescriber’s last name is Scott; therefore, the first two letters of his DEA number should be either “BS” or “AS.” 6. A sum of the 1st, 3rd and 5th numbers should The retail cost for a one tablet should be:= $3.50 + $0.53 7. A sum of the 2nd, 4th and 6th number should The retail cost for 30 tablets should be:= 30 x $4.03 8. Multiplying the second sum with a factor of 2: Dispensing cost = retail costs + dispensing fees 9. The addition of 24 to the sum of the 1st, 3rd 66 (b) The NX in Talwin NX indicates the name
The last number of the prescriber’s DEA number of an active ingredient, Naloxone. It is an opioid must be 9. Therefore, the correct choice should be antagonist. It is indicated for prevention of abuse of controlled drugs. The quantity of Naloxone in Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 68 (d) A drug recall generally requires:
75 (b) The principal adverse effect of Hydrala-
zine is Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, briefly
* Lot number of the drug,* Strength of the drug and 76 (b) A 1 milligram is equal to 1000 micro-
grams. A patient is using 100 micrograms of Cy-anocobalamin every week, and therefore the vial 69 (b) Atenolol is classified as a beta-blocker in-
(1mg/ml) is supposed to last for 10 weeks.
dicated for the treatment of hypertension. The beta-blocker is contraindicated to use in a patient suf- 77 (b) Depakene (Valproic acid) is indicated for
fering from diabetes, asthma or congestive heart 78 (b) The principal adverse effect of Clozaril is
70 (c) The compounding of cytotoxic (cancer)
agranulocytosis. This can be monitored by regu- agents should be done by wearing a protective larly checking the white blood cell (WBC) counts mask and gloves to avoid the adverse or toxic ef- of a patient. The patient should present his/her current blood report every week before receiving for the treatment of testicular cancer and carci-noma of squamous cells. It should be prepared by 79 (b) If Lithium carbonate were administered to
wearing a protective mask and gloves.
a pregnant woman during the first trimester of apregnancy, it would cause a congenital abnormal- 71 (b) Pentam (Pentamidine), Bactrim DS
ity. Other drugs that may cause harm to a devel- (Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim) and Mepron oping fetus are: Tetracycline, Finasteride, cyto- (Atovaquone) are indicated for the treatment of P.
toxic agents, Isotretinoin and Warfarin.
Carinii. Pneumonia. Nafcillin is not indicated forthe treatment of P. Carinii. Pneumonia.
80 (b) Erythromycin 2% topical solution.
72 (a) Prozac (Fluoxetine) should not be admin-
81 (b) The SR is generally recognized as “Sus-
istered in the late afternoon or at bedtime, in order tained Release.” The drug with “SR” designation to prevent insomnia. It should be administered early in the morning or before noon.
82 (c) The correct choice should be “c.” The pre-
73 (b) The active ingredients of Augmentin are
scription is written to be taken via gastro-intesti- Amoxicillin and Potassium clavulanate.
nal tube. Therefore, it can’t be taken orally.
One can’t crush or dissolve a tablet of K-DUR 74 (b) Calan (Verapamil) has a negative chrono-
since it may cause high irritation to the G.I. tract tropic effect, by slowing down the conduction of and may also destroy the prolonged releasing ac- the heart, which may cause bradycardia (an ab- 83 (b) 17% Salicylic acid solution. It is indicated
chronotropic effect. It may worsen or extravagate a patient’s heart condition. The simultaneous ad-ministration of both agents requires careful super- 84 (b) Via sublingual route. Nitrostat is indicated
for the treatment of an acute attack of angina (chestpain).
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 85 (b) Atarax.
93 (b) NebuPent is the brand name for Pentami-
dine isethionate. It is administered via an inhala-
86 (c) D5W solution is generally interpreted as
tion route. An I.V. Pentamidine is available under the brand name of Pentam. Pentamidine is indi-cated for the treatment of P.Carinii.Pneumonia.
94 (c) P.P.D. It is described as a Purified Protein
Derivative. It is indicated for the tuberculosis test.
It requires to be stored in a referigerator.
87 (a) The solution of multivitamins should be
95 (b) Videx (Didanosine) is indicated for the
added last, when preparing a TPN, to prevent in- treatment of HIV. It is easily degraded in the pres- Each Videx tablet is buffered with sodium 88 (b) A DAW indicates “Dispense As Written.”
bicarbonate (buffering agent). An adult patientshould take two tablets at each dose to achieve an 89 (b) Insulin is administered via the subcutane-
adequate buffering to reduce a gastric acid degra- ous route since it absorbs very slowly through this route. This will help reduce the chances of severe Therefore, to provide 200 milligrams of a dose, two tablets each of 100 milligrams wouldbe more preferable over a single tablet of 200 mil- 90A (b) 2880 scoops.
96 (c) A Milk of magnesia contains magnesium
ions, which form a chelation with Tetracyclinesand reduce their absorption through the G.I. tract.
The concurrent use should be avoided.
90B (b) A patient were taking 1250 milligrams of
97 (b) A thiazide diuretic may increase the tox-
a drug twice a day; therefore, the total quantity of icity of lithium by facilitating the reabsorption of the drug required to fill a whole day supply would ized form do compete for the renal tubular reab- sorption. By increasing the renal excretion of so- dium, thiazide diuretics facilitate the renal tubu-lar reabsorption of lithium. The concurrent use 91 (b) Methicillin is a member of the penicillin
98 (b) 5.6cc. A patient is using 2 milligrams of
group of antibiotics, and therefore the correct Morphine every 3 hours; therefore, 16 milligrams of Morphine will be consumed by the patient ev-ery day (24 hours).
92 (b) Pyridium (Phenazopyridine) is indicated
as a urinary analgesic agent for the treatment of
urinary tract infections. It causes a discoloration = 16mg x 7days = 112 milligrams of Morphine of urine to orange-red and requires the auxiliarylabel “May discolor the urine” on the dispensingcontainer.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Morphine sulfate is a concentrated solution avail- 112x1/20 = 5.6cc of Morphine concentrated solu- = 0.1 mg of Timolol (**1 gram = 1000 mg**) 99 (c) Amphotericin -B is an antifungal agent
103 (b) 1:1000 is generally interpreted as a one
indicated for the treatment of various fungal in- gram of a drug present in 1000cc of a solution.
fections. Reglan (Metoclopramide), Zofran Similarly, 1:100 is interpreted as a one gram of a (Ondansetron) and Compazine (Prochlorperazine) drug present in 100cc of a solution.
are classified as antiemetic agents. They are indi-cated for the treatment of nausea and vomiting.
100 (a) A sustained release preparation cannot be
crushed since it may lose its special coating and
disturb its prolonged duration of action. Also, thecrushing of such preparation may increase the 104 (d) To solve this type of a calculation, first
toxic effects of the drug. Therefore, the correct we need to find out the quantity of Mannitol choice would be “a,” consult a pharmacist.
present in a 50cc, 25% Mannitol solution.
101 (c) The wholesale price for 500 capsules of
100 cc of solution contains 25 gm of Mannitol.
Now this 50cc, 25% of Mannitol is diluted withwater up to 900 cc. Therefore, we can say that 12.5 grams of Mannitol are now present in 900ccof solution.
The percentage mark-up on a prescription is 30.
Therefore, 900cc of solution contains 12.5 gm of Mannitol.
Therefore, the retail price for each capsule should 105 (b) Nadolol is a generic name for Corgard. It
be: $0.09 + $0.03 = $0.12 = 12 cents.
is classified as a beta-blocker. It is indicated forthe treatment of hypertension.
102 (b) A Timolol ophthalmic solution is avail-
able as 10 cc, 0.05% solution.
106(b) Each Zyprexa 5mg tablet costs $4.20. A
percentage mark-up on each tablet is 8. Therefore,
the mark-up on each tablet should be:
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 112 (a) An anti-parkinson. Bromocriptine is a
dopamine receptor agonist indicated for the treat-ment of Parkinsonism. The prolonged use of Bromocriptine may cause severe pulmonary tox-icity.
The retail price for each tablet = $4.20 + $0.336 113 (d) Prozac (Fluoxetine) has a prolonged half-
The retail price for 30 tablets = $4.53 x 30 life. It remains for a long time in the body after 107(a) The weight of a patient is 180 lbs. The
with MAO inhibitors such as Parnate (Tranyl- cypromine), Nardil (Phenelzine) andIsocarboxazid, it produces a life-threatening hy- The recommended dose of Theophylline should inhibitors should be strictly avoided. It is advis- be 10mg/kg. Therefore the patient should receive: able not to administer Prozac for at least 5 weeksafter discontinuing MAO inhibitors.
= 82kg x 10mg = 820 milligrams of Theophyl-line.
114(d) Pravastatin (Pravachol) is indicated for the
treatment of an elevated lipid level. It reduces the
The patient is taking the drug every 6 hours; there- risk of atherosclerosis in a patient with an elevated fore, a total daily dose of Theophylline: (Fosphenytoin) and Tegretol (Carbamazepine) are 108(b) The 100 mg of Aminophylline contain ap-
115 (d) All of the above.
proximately 80 mg of Theophylline, therefore: 116 (b) The reconstituted products are generally
good for 14 days from the date of reconstitution; therefore, the correct stop date should be 12/14/ 117 (b) Proscar (Finasteride) is indicated for the
treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
109(c) Vicoprofen is a combination product of
(B.P.H.). It should not be touched by pregnant Hydrocodone and Ibuprofen. The patient is aller- women since it may cause harm to a developing gic to Codeine, and Hydrocodone belongs to the fetus. Proscar should always be filled while wear- same class as Codeine does. Therefore the correct 118 (c) Cipro HC otic solution is indicated for the
110 (a) Norvir needs to be stored in a refrigerator.
treatment of an ear infection. The direction on aprescription indicates one should administer the 111 (a) The administration of Heparin via an in-
drug into the eyes. Therefore, a pharmacy techni- tramuscular route produces hematoma and ex- cian should immediately notify a pharmacist about treme pain at the injection site. Its administration Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 119 (b) Simvastatin.
120 (b) Benadryl (Diphenhydramine) elixir is
Since the patient is taking one tablespoon of syrup four times a day, the total amount of the drug perday taken by the patient should be: = 300mg x 4 = 1200 milligrams of Robitussin 125 (b) Isotretinoin should be dispensed with com-
plete patient leaflet information. The other drugs
121 (c) For this type of calculation, we need to
that require the complete patient leaflet informa- tion or Patient Package Insert (PPI) are: We have 10% Mannitol solution and we want to make 7.5% Mannitol solution from it.
2. Oral contraceptives.
3. Estrogen-containing products.
4. Progesterone-containing products.
5. Isoproterenol inhalation products.
126 (b) The rate of TPN infusion is 2cc per minute.
7.5 % Mannitol
10 % Mannitol
A number of hours = 500/60 = 8.33 hours.
127 (b) 250 milligrams or 0.25 grams of Rocephin
500x7.5/10 = 375cc of 10% Mannitol solution powder are mixed with 250cc, 0.9% normal sa- 122 (c) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (B.P.H.).
123 (b) 1 milligram is equal to 1000 micrograms.
Therefore, 1 microgram is equal to 0.001 milli-
128 (b) Dexacidin is a combination product of
124 (c) Robitussin cough syrup is available in 100
Neomycin, Polymyxins and Dexamethasone.
mg/5cc strength. A patient is taking 1 tablespoon(15cc) of syrup four times a day.
129 (c) 125 grams or 125,000 milligrams of Dex-
trose are dissolved into 500cc of water. Therefore,
The amount of Robitussin present in a one table- the concentration of Dextrose in milligrams/cc should be 125000mg/500cc = 250 mg/cc.
130 (b) Glynase Press tablet is the brand name for
Micronized Glyburide. It is indicated for the treat-ment of Type II diabetes mellitus.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition 131 (b) Theo-dur is the brand name for Theophyl-
line. A patient hypersensitive to theophylline needs to avoid drugs containing theophylline as an ac- 132 (b) Ketorolac tromethamine is a generic name
for Toradol. It is indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe pain. It is only useful for the management of short-term pain due to its severe adverse effects profile. The use of Ketorolac for more than 5 days requires close supervision of a 133 (c) Lisinopril is classified as an angiotensin
converting enzyme inhibitor. It is NOT an angio- tensin II receptor antagonist. The new generation angiotensin II receptor antagonists are Cozaar (Losartan), Avapro (Irbersartan), Benicar (Olmesartan), Micardis (Telmisartan), Atacand(Candesartan) and Diovan (Valsartan). The prin- When dispensing a Schedule II controlled drug: cipal advantage of angiotensin II receptor antago-nists over ACE inhibitors is that the former do not A patient needs to provide a valid identity produce a dry cough, which is a very common before receiving this class of drugs. The prescrip- complication associated with ACE inhibitors tion for a Schedule II controlled drug must have a printed prescriber’s name with a valid signatureand the DEA number.
134 (b)Tubex: Prefilled syringe
The theft of Schedule II controlled drugs 135 (b) Pepcid (Famotidine) is classified as an H
should be immediately reported to the DEA. It receptor antagonist. The other H receptor antago- nists are Tagamet (Cimetidine), Axid (Nizatidine)and Zantac (Ranitidine). They are indicated for the treatment of G.I. ulcer and heartburn.
one needs to follow the procedure outlined by theDEA. The request should be made on DEA form 136 (b) Maxzide is a combination product of
Triamterene and Hydrochlorothiazide. The addi-tion of Hydrochlorothiazide to the therapeutic regi- In case of an emergency, a pharmacist may men is considered a therapeutic duplication.
dispense a Schedule II controlled drug upon re-ceiving an oral authorization from a prescriber if 137 (b) The Schedule II controlled drugs require
the DEA 222 form to order drugs from a whole-saler. A list of controlled II drugs is: The prescriber must deliver a written pre- scription, within 7 days of an emergency call, to adispensing pharmacy.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition controlled drug should be limited to cover an emer- 15x0.05/100 = 0.007 gm of Triamcinolone.
138 (b) A 2% Lidocaine solution is interpreted as:
A total amount of Triamcinolone present in (80gm + 15gm = 95gm) of cream should be (0.020gm + 139 (b) Doxycycline is classified as an antibacte-
The percentage of Triamcinolone in the final mix- 140 (b) 0.15 mg. Since 1 milligram is equal to
1000 micrograms, 150 micrograms are equal to 100 x0.027/95 = 0.028% w/w Triamcinolone.
141 (b) Docusate Na and Casanthranol.
146 (b) $1.25.
142(d) Certain Cephalosporins and oral sulfony-
lurea agents may produce disulfiram-like reactions
147 (b) Cortef is the brand name for Hydrocorti-
when taken with alcohol. The simultaneous use of alcohol with the above classes of drugs is strictlyprohibited. The use of benzodiazepines with al- 148 (b) Phenobarbital enhances the metabolism
cohol may produce severe drowsiness and dizzi- of theophylline and reduces its pharmacological effects. The other choices, such as Erythromycin,Cimetidine and Ciprofloxacin, inhibit the metabo- 143 (a) Chlorpheniramine.
lism of theophylline and increase its toxicity andadverse effects.
144 (b) 1200 milligrams.
149 (d) All of the above. Anticholinergics and
antihistamine agents may cause urinary retention that may extravagate the condition of Benign Pro-static Hyperplasia (BPH).
2x60/100 = 1.2 gm = 1200 milligrams.
extravagate symptoms of BPH by stimulating al- 145 (b) 0.028%
The amount of Triamcinolone present in 80 grams carefully prescribed to a patient suffering from an enlargement of the prostate gland or B.P.H.
150 (c) 15 cc.
80x0.025/100 = 0.020 gram Triamcinolone.
The amount of Triamcinolone present in 15 grams Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Dilaudid (Hydromorphone) is indicated for A potassium phosphate should precede thecalcium chloride.
A Floxin otic solution is generally found Which of the following ingredients should under which of the following sections of a phar- be added last due to stability problems when pre- Which of the following ingredients should be added last to prevent a fatal error when prepar-ing a TPN? solution are required to prepare a 10%, 300cc of A patient with a history of hypersensitiv- ity reactions to Aspirin needs to avoid which ofthe following? If a prescription for Compazine reads “1 suppo pr q4h PRN N and V,” the correct interpre- tation of it should be which of the following? $250 and the percentage mark-up on a prescrip-tion is 15, what will be the retail cost of 30 tablets 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed 1 suppository per rectum every 4 hours as 1 tablet by mouth as needed for nausea and 1 suppository per vagina every 4 hours asneeded for nausea and vomiting.
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Pamelor (Nortriptyline) is indicated for the solution of an opium alkaloid) reads “0.6cc bymouth four times a day.” What will be the dose of (12.5mg/5cc) reads “1 tsp po qhs,” what will bethe dose of Benadryl at bedtime? cream is mixed with two capsules of Clindamycin each weighing 150 mg, what will be the percent- use”, is required before dispensing which of the age of the drug in the resultant mixture? If a prescription for Maalox plus reads “1 equivalency requirements can be found under tbsp po tid PRN for heartburn X 10 days,” what will be the dispensed quantity of the drug in cc? If a patient has an allergy history that sug- shows the highest risk to a developing fetus? gests the patient is allergic to Aspirin and Cephal-exin, a pharmacy technician will notify a pharma- cist before filling which of the following? are required to fill a prescription order requesting20cc? Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition If a patient takes a 5%, 5cc Ciprofloxacin solution (120cc), what will be the dose of the drug If a 1 gm of Cefazolin is diluted with 10cc of 0.9 % normal saline, and then the resultant mix- ture is diluted up to 100cc mark with a 5% dex- trose solution, what will be the concentration ofCefazolin in mg/ml in the final solution? ride are required to prepare 1 quart of 1 in 40 so- added to 250mg of Rocephin powder, what would be the strength of Rocephin in mg/ml in 12cc fi- day, what will be the dispensed quantity of Lanoxin elixir (50 mcg/ml) in mLs for a 30-daysupply? Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Cylert (Pemoline) is indicated for the treat- A patient with hypersensitivity to Heparin Ciprofloxacin allergy should be listed un- Imitrex (Sumatriptan) is indicated for the mixed with 5 cc of Heparin (5000 units/cc), how many units of Heparin will be present in a 1 cc ofthe final solution? required to prepare 80 grams of 3% Salicylic acid? Zofran (Ondansetron HCL) is indicated for Catapres (Clonidine) is indicated for the Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition A prescription says to infuse 14 mg/kg/day of Cipro for a patient weighing 154 lbs for the treatment of a UTI. How many bags of Cipro(250mg/100cc) are required to fill the above or- are required to fill the following prescription?“Augmentin 875 mg by mouth twice a day for 7 Ranitidine is indicated for the treatment of KCl solution, how many grams of KCl would the ylphenidate for one of his patients. Which of the following is the correct DEA number for Dr.
required to prepare 30cc, 1:10000 solution? Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition All of the following drugs are contraindi- cated to use by a patient suffering from hyperten- If a bottle of antacid costs $3.25, what is lowing drugs should be prepared under the verti- How many cc of 5% glacial acetic acid are solution reads as follows: “1 drop od q3 hours x 5 required to prepare a 3%, 500cc glacial acetic acid days.” If a bottle of Tobramycin solution contains 5cc, how long will it take to finish the wholebottle? (Assume 15 drops are equal to 1 cc.) were mixed with a 2.5% of 45 grams of Hydro- cortisone, what would be the percentage of Hy- “1200mg po biw.” How many tablets of Zithromax 600 mg are required to fill a 30-day order? Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition The DEA 222 order form is required to or- Drug Code number (NDC) represents which ofthe following? Which of the following drugs is contrain- states 04/99. When does this drug expire? Maalox Plus, helps relieving which of the follow- To prepare a 2%, 240cc Cleocin topical gel, how many 150mg capsules of Clindamycin are form should be filled within what time period? 50 mg po hs.” How many cc of Diphenhydramine (12.5mg/5cc) are required to dispense a 30-day Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition specific categories for medications, legend (pre- surface area of 80 mm if an adult dose of the Which of the following is the correct DEA To get a permit to destroy controlled drugs, 250cc is given every 12 hours. If an I.V. set deliv-ers 20 drops per ml, what is the rate of flow? Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition DISULFIRAM REACTIONS PRODUCING DRUGS
DRUGS THAT PRECIPITATE DISULFIRAM-LIKE REACTIONS
PLATELETS AGGREGATION INHIBITORS
URINE DISCOLORATION PRODUCING DRUGS
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition DRUGS THAT REQUIRE A PATIENT PACKAGE INSERT
DRUGS CONTRAINDICATED DURING PREGNANCY
DRUGS THAT CAUSE PHOTOSENSITIVITY REACTIONS
Abbreviations
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition DRUGS THAT CAUSE AN ENZYME INDUCTION
DRUGS THAT CAUSE AN ENZYME INHIBITION
STOOL DISCOLOR- PRODUCING DRUGS
DRUGS THAT ARE REQUIRED TO BE STORED IN A REFRIGERATOR
Calcitonin Salmon (Injection, nasal spray) Bacid (dietary supplement)Lactinex (dietary supplement)Sterile Bacitracin powder Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Calculations
PANCREATIC ENZYME SUPPLEMENT PRODUCTS
Ku-Zyme-HPViokaseCreonCotazymIlozymeFestal DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO BELLADONNA
ALKALOIDS OR PHENOBARBITAL
BarbidonnaKinesedSpasmophenDonnapineHyosophenSpaslinSpasmolinRelaxadonMalatal DRUGS THAT ARE AVAILABLE IN DEPOT PREPARATIONS
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO SULFA DRUGS
SulfonamideOral sulfonylureaThiazide diureticsDapsone DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO AN TCA ALLERGY
Tricyclic antidepressantsCarbamazepineCyclobenzaprine NEOPLASTIC AGENTS (REQUIRE GLOVES AND PROTECTIVE MASKS FOR PREPARATION)
Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Antidote of drugs
Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine

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